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Is it possible to have a time-dependent (non-conservative) force satisfying $\nabla \times
\vec{F}=0$?

Yes, in general. The two conditions for a force to be conservative-- that it depends only on $\vec{r}$, and that $\nabla \times
\vec{F}=0$ (the latter is equivalent to the condition that work done is independent of path) -- are separate conditions, and if either one is violated, then the force is non-conservative.



Kate Scholberg 2020-01-21